I have a question from the 2018 paper Q1 b)
So I was just wondering if my explanation would be valid because I did it differently from the marking schedule.
So IQR is the middle 50%; therefore, on a standard normal curve, it would cover an area of 0.25 on either side of the mean, which is 0, so it would cover a total area of 0.5
On a standard normal curve, one standard deviation would cover an area of 0.34 from the mean, which is 0.
0.5/0.34 = IQR is approximately 1.5 times greater than IQR for any normal distribution
Would my working be correct?